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#1 |
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Core Member [219%]
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There has been an absence of math here recently.
I've got one that's very simple and very accessible for almost anyone. In the future, I'll attempt to be more creative To view links or images in this forum your post count must be 2 or greater. You currently have 0 posts. Simplify: To view links or images in this forum your post count must be 2 or greater. You currently have 0 posts. |
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#2 |
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Administrator
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I think I'll let some other people have a shot at this one.
Don't disappoint me, people! To view links or images in this forum your post count must be 2 or greater. You currently have 0 posts. |
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#3 |
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Core Member [108%]
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#4 |
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Core Member [408%]
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#5 |
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Core Member [103%]
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#6 | |||
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Administrator
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Yay! Not disappointed. |
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#7 |
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Veteran Member [50%]
MBTI: xxxx
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 2,008
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Maybe someone could show how this equation is derived? It's quite simple...
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#8 |
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Member [16%]
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Umm...why don't you use ln?
e^i(pie) + 1 = 0 e^i(pie) = -1 ln(e)^i(pie) = ln(-1) (ln cancels the e, since ln = log(e)) i(pie) = ln(-1) i(pie)/ln(-1) = 0 I didn't stated the exact answer. I guess you need a calculator and I don't have one right now. Still, I'm not sure if I'm right. |
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#9 |
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Core Member [103%]
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I'm far too lazy to type this properly right now, but I can if anyone is really interested and no one else volunteers...
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#10 | |||
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Member [27%]
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Sure, but B=3 is far more compelling and controversial. |
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#11 | |||
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Veteran Member [50%]
MBTI: xxxx
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 2,008
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I prefer 3=3 for the symmetry. Though I guess if it was to scale then it'd be a really tiny....or a really large...Uhhh...nevermind. What were we talking about? |
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#12 | |||
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Core Member [133%]
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If you divide by ln(-1) you get = 1, not =0. |
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#13 |
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Member [36%]
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Popular process leaves quite the impression..
EDIT: After a bit more sober reviewing, please pardon my derailment of the OP's question, I was wandering off in wonderland.. again. To view links or images in this forum your post count must be 2 or greater. You currently have 0 posts.
Last edited by pure potential; 02-23-2009 at 06:41 AM.
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#14 | |||
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Core Member [408%]
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Actually, ln(-1) = i*pi/2. |
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#15 | |||
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Veteran Member [50%]
MBTI: xxxx
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 2,008
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Yeah, I remembered we weren't just talking about the reals and edited my post right before you posted that. |
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#16 | |||
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Core Member [133%]
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Isn't that ln(-1) = i*π?
Last edited by nacht; 02-23-2009 at 08:35 AM.
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#17 | |||
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Core Member [408%]
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Yes, Nacht, I'm sorry. It is i*pi... I dashed that off, and ran to a meeting, where I realized I'd typed in the value for ln(i) instead of ln(-1). I just now got back. |
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#18 |
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Core Member [219%]
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I haven't seen a wrong answer yet! And the side discussions are pretty radical (or are they...)
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#19 |
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Member [04%]
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I knew the answer from way back, it's an old friend. Couldn't remember how to prove it though!
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#20 |
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Member [36%]
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Actually after even more sober reviewing (sleep!), I think I simplified fine, just in a different context. Thanks for the opportunity to think, rahdam! 'twas fun.
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