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Exposed to HIV the other day drugs, medicine, sex
Old 07-08-2012, 02:27 AM   #76
INTroJect
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I was the top of the class in "Statistics for Scientists and Engineers" and routinely run statistics in my job. I actually enjoy it!

That must have been you I made sure to sit behind and over one seat to the side so I could double-check my results during the test. Thanks for that.

 
Rather like cancer therapy?

Rather like cancer therapy for about 3 or 4 days, and then more like memory therapy to make sure I take the completely-benign-pill on time. Now that Im suped up with antiretrovirals, part of me wants to go hit the town and find out what all this excitement is about for barebacking.


 
For 20-30 years, at which point you develop AIDS and die of rejoice from a thousand different illnesses treatments options paid for by others thanks to government redistributionism.

(But lets cross our fingers and hope they don't start messing with patent protections.)

 
If what you say is true, then the LGBT community deserves what it gets re:HIV.

The data is already starting to reflect my in-person observations on the ground.


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We should expect this to continue, except fewer will care for this particular wave as the individual consequences are now inconsequential. Everyone knew about the clap before AIDS but were havin the bangfest anyway. We were shocked for a while into using condoms but now it's zzzzzz all over again.

 
It didn't work. HIV was able to survive indefinitely even when deactivated. So now research is focused on creating a vaccine and destroying the virus outright, not on improving the quality of life-extending drugs.

As my professor who developed two HIV drugs liked to say, "The HIV pandemic was preventable, and shows how weak humans are." He wasn't a very nice person. One of his more recent papers:


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Science has made it this far with the disease, pretty darn relatively quick. It's a big problem but it is scientifically solvable, we wouod just need to crack the code on this.

---------- Post added 07-08-2012 at 04:37 AM ----------

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Like Uriel here? Maybe you should take him with you to the sex club, he can point out all the HIV+ people...

Omg. That would be fun. Hey, Uriel how about it?

 
You're cool with letting strangers shoot semen inside your exposed anus, but are grossed out by sharing a cup? Huh?

Definitely not, hence taking the nPEP. I'm actually allergic to semen, it gives me a skin reaction.

 
Unless they find a cure (unlikely), you'll still die a horrible death. You might have to wait 20-30 years, but it'll eventually catch up with you...that hasn't changed since the 90s.

What has changed is people's irrational belief that medical science will find a cure before they die.

Go back a few decades. In retrospect, it turns out that the irrational people were the ones saying we wouldn't advance as far as we have.

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Old 07-08-2012, 11:31 AM   #77
Uriel
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  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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FACT: Lipodystrophy is only a potential side-effect of HIV medications.
FACT: Not every HIV+ man is on HIV meds.
FACT: Not every HIV+ man who is on meds will suffer from lipodystrophy.
CONCLUSION: Not every HIV+ man will have lipodystrophy.

So, for those HIV+ men who do not have lipodystrophy, you have absolutely no visual way to know they are HIV+.

For this group of men which are unknown by you to have HIV presents your pool of "false negatives". Now, given that have previously stated that you do not use condoms during oral sex, you have created a scenario in which you are engaging in unsafe sexual practices with HIV+ men, therefore putting you as risk for infection.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Not all HIV+ people are on medication, and not all HIV medications cause lipodystrophy.
A shitty indicator that will give you many false negatives.

Question to eagleseven: Would you have sex with a male who exhibits lipodystrophy such as that I described?

paleoeco already admitted to using the mystical method in determining the HIV status of said individual.

FACT: Lipodystrophy is a side-effect of certain HIV medications.
FACT: You must be in long-term use of said HIV medication for Lipodystrophy to take effect.
FACT: You must be HIV+ in order to be in long-term use of said HIV medication.

My mystical method regardless of its fallibility, still nets HIV+ individuals.
Just because it's not an accurate screen for all HIV+ individuals doesn't mean it's invalid.
The number of false negatives it yields is irrelevant, because they fall under additional layers of risk reduction.
See items 1 through 7 below.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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How do you think heterosexual men in Africa contract HIV?
Lots of unprotected insertive sex!

Why are you comparing the sexual behavior of heterosexual males in Africa to homosexual males in the US?
What is the concentration of HIV+ individuals in each country?
What gender do these individuals engage in sex with?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Per single unprotected blow-job. If you give 100 unprotected blowjobs per year, over twenty years (2000 unprotected blowjobs), your risk of contracting HIV becomes 18%.

P = {(n!)/[x!(n-x)!]}(p)x(1-p)(n-x)

If you always use a condom, your 2000-blowjob risk drops to 0.18%.

Same calculation, now for 100 top barebacking events per year over 20 years. Crunch the formula, and over 20 years your odds of contracting HIV is 99.97%.

But maybe 100 times is excessive? Let's assume you bareback as a top once per week, or 52 times a year...much more reasonable. Over twenty years...

...drumroll... ...your odds of contracting HIV are 99.2%! Which is why it's a pandemic.

In other words, Uriel, if you continue to top people bareback it's only a matter of time before you're HIV+. Wake up.

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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God this is stupid and short-sighted on your part: if you keep engaging in a behavior multiple times it does not change the frequency of a single instance, but as Storm pointed out above, over the period of time of the multiple instances, the probability changes.

Let's use the example of condomless receptive oral sex. That is 1 infection per 10,000 exposures. Do you think that 1 exposure happened at blowjob #1 or blowjob #10,000? Do you think that if you only did 9,999 blowjobs, you'd be OK since you didn't do the 10,000th one?

Blowjob #1 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
Blowjob #2 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
Blowjob #3 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
...
Blowjob #2,000 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
...
Blowjob #10,000 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.

Just because I have not contracted HIV at blowjob #9,999 does not mean I will contract HIV at blowjob #10,000, because that would mean that blowjob #10,000 has a 100% transmission rate. Each blowjob is mutually exclusive of the other and does not affect the other in any way. There is no cumulative or additive or associative or aggregate effect regarding each of these instances.

eagleseven: I asked someone else in the forum who knows a thing or two about math, and he says:

"The formula given in the
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is incorrect. [...]and most of the results are substantial over-estimates."


Why you used a Binomial Distribution to create the illusion of increased probability of infection is beyond me, because it is dependent on a constant probability of infection (0.01% and 0.065% respectively), meaning I would have to engage in oral/anal sex with HIV+ males in ALL 2000 out of 2000 instances.

Just in case that wasn't clear enough...

Question: Is every single individual whom I will engage in a sexual act with HIV+?

If for some ungodly reason you aren't smart enough to answer this, see item 5. below.

In short, your analysis is completely and utterly invalid.

  Originally Posted by INTroJect
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It is taking into account the activities with a known infected source.
Meaning, the risk is even less with the general population because the vast majority are non-infected.

Let me reiterate what INTroJect said:

In the data set, the column label says 10,000 exposures to an infected source.
That means 10,000 blowjobs to a single individual or individuals who are all HIV+.
This does not account blowjobs to individuals who are HIV-.
The actual sex pool in real life includes both HIV- and HIV+ individuals.
What do you think the inclusion of HIV- individuals do to the percentages in the data set?

Let's play with those numbers some more, just to piss people off.

1. What is the total number of HIV+ individuals in the general US population?

2. What percent of the HIV+ population in 1. constitute males?

3. What percent of the population in 2. constitute white males?

4. What percent of the population in 3. constitute homosexuals?

5. Addition of HIV- homosexual white males to the population in 4.

6. What percent of the population in 5. is HIV+ and HIV-?

7. Mystical Virus Vision makes extraneous exclusions that includes individuals in population 5 (false positives).

8. What percent of the time do I top or bottom? Nice, round numbers for convenience.
-----20% Top
--------50% no condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.065% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)
--------50% with condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)

-----80% Bottom
--------100% with condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I'd recommend taking a college statistics course.


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  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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Additionally, you admit to barebacking as a top "if the bottom says he's negative".

No. Where did I state this?

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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There is no strawman here.

Since you seem to have missed it by miles, I'm going to point it out to you again. You say there is no strawman argument to make against the mystical virus vision, yet that's exactly what you did. You compared HIV to Chicken Pox, HSV-2, and HPV, then state these diseases do not affect physical appearance, thus physical appearance is not a viable determinant of the presence of the disease, thus HIV must be the same.

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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There are plenty of HIV+ men who believe the exact same thing.

Quantifier.

How many?
Percentages?
Citations?

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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Believing you can determine a persons HIV+ status by visual cues (which are only present in some cases) isn't "reasonable risk reduction".

Strawman.
non-sequitur.

Visual cues + low risk sexual acts + condom use in most sexual acts = "reasonable risk reduction"

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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That's your admission of shaming. You partially serosort based on your mystical virus vision, but you aren't just doing this out of safety reasons. No, you've admitted that not only do you serosort to protect yourself, you go one step farther and assign a negative value judgment on the person that you have just sorted against: that is shaming.

That is what I stated externally for the sake of discussion in this thread, and that is shaming.

Now.

Is it still considered shaming if I do not state it externally?
Again, does the individual who is discriminated against feel shame if he does not know he was discriminated against due to the practice of serosorting being unstated?

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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What about the 1 guy in 10,000 that got HIV from oral sex?

Just because there is a 1 in 10,000 chance of contracting HIV through unsafe receptive oral does not mean there was 1 guy in 10,000 who contracted HIV through unsafe receptive oral sex. That is not how statistics works.

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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See, not everyone with HIV gets it from excessively unsafe sexual behavior.

Quantifier.
How many?
Percentages?
Citations?

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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[...]and insistence that low probability will save you.

False. Where did I state that low probability will "save" me?

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Question: If I do get infected and I ask for sympathy, would you give it to me?

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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Not in the least bit, after this conversation. It's one thing to not have proper information; it's something entirely to believe yourself smarter than the facts.

This is marvelous.

You took it upon yourself to arbitrarily decide who and who doesn't get to be treated equally among HIV+ individuals.
Do you know how many among HIV+ individuals practice the same shaming that I stated?
Do you know how many among HIV+ individuals practice excessively irresponsible unsafe sex?
Do you know how many among HIV+ individuals intentionally infect other individuals?
Do you know how many among HIV+ individuals contracted it through freakish outlier circumstances?
How do you decide which of these HIV+ individuals deserve to be treated equally as HIV- individuals?


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  Originally Posted by INTroJect
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I'm not sure how to calculate it but the chances for Uriel are theoretically lower for someone who uses the mystical force, but higher than someone who uses the conventional ideal for catching the disease.

Please don't give it away so soon.

If I were in your position, I would do the exact same thing you did in the OP.

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Old 07-08-2012, 11:52 AM   #78
paleoeco
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The odds of being struck by lightning are 0.0002%. Do you also walk around in thunderstorms carrying a copper rod?

Please, don't mistake my trying to inform you of what is and is not safe sexual practice as telling you how to live your life. I don't care what you do or who you do. Clearly you have made up your mind about where your comfort with risk lies, and that's commendable. But why you are comfortable with that risk is a fantasy of your mind and understanding and not based on safe sexual practices. You are mistaken about your real risk to exposure.

What I do care about is your trying to pass off incorrect information about safe sex practice. What I do care about is your parading snake oil mystical virus vision as an appropriate method of risk reduction by rationalizing as being some way "reasonable".

Do whatever you like, but don't expect others to allow bullshit to be paraded as fact or even best practices.
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Old 07-08-2012, 12:13 PM   #79
Uriel
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  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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The odds of being struck by lightning are 0.0002%.
Do you also walk around in thunderstorms carrying a copper rod?

Moronic analogy is moronic strawman.

Walking around with a copper rod during a thunderstorm is not comparable to the risk reductions regarding the contraction of HIV described so far.

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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You are mistaken about your real risk to exposure.

Elaborate.

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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What I do care about is your trying to pass off incorrect information about safe sex practice.

Specify which of the information I am stating is incorrect.

  Originally Posted by paleoeco
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Do whatever you like, but don't expect others to allow bullshit to be paraded as fact or even best practices.

Which of my statements do you consider as "bullshit to be paraded as fact"?
Which of my statements do you consider as "bullshit to be paraded as best practices"?

Your statements are nothing more than afterschool public service announcements.
The reason for your incessant false rhetoric analogies is fear mongering.

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Old 07-08-2012, 05:31 PM   #80
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Question to eagleseven: Would you have sex with a male who exhibits lipodystrophy such as that I described?

No, but I can't recognize it.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Why are you comparing the sexual behavior of heterosexual males in Africa to homosexual males in the US?
What is the concentration of HIV+ individuals in each country?
What gender do these individuals engage in sex with?

I brought it up because unprotected vaginal sex has a much lower transmission rate than unprotected anal sex, yet HIV has infected over 15% of South Africans.

Clearly, the extremely low chance of contracting HIV vaginally hasn't stopped the spread.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Blowjob #1 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
Blowjob #2 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
Blowjob #3 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
...
Blowjob #2,000 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.
...
Blowjob #10,000 yields a 0.01% probability of transmission if the individual is HIV+.

You familiar with the law of large numbers? Look it up. If you want to force a one-in-a-million bacterial mutation, you need only grow a few million bacteria.

If you want to force a one-in-ten-thousand infection, you need only have ten thousand exposures.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Just because I have not contracted HIV at blowjob #9,999 does not mean I will contract HIV at blowjob #10,000, because that would mean that blowjob #10,000 has a 100% transmission rate. Each blowjob is mutually exclusive of the other and does not affect the other in any way. There is no cumulative or additive or associative or aggregate effect regarding each of these instances.

Which is why I used a binomial distribution. If you use the binomial distribution for a fair coin toss, the odds of not getting a heads, or not getting a tails, gets closer to zero as tosses increase.

I ran the simulation as a coin toss, with a 99.94% chance of landing heads (non-infected), and a 0.06% chance of landing tails (infected). As the number of tosses increases, the odds of avoiding tails goes to zero. It's the law of large numbers at work.


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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eagleseven: I asked someone else in the forum who knows a thing or two about math, and he says:

"The formula given in the
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is incorrect. [...]and most of the results are substantial over-estimates."

Perhaps your math friend should explain why a binomial distribution doesn't work with this dataset.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Why you used a Binomial Distribution to create the illusion of increased probability of infection is beyond me, because it is dependent on a constant probability of infection (0.01% and 0.065% respectively), meaning I would have to engage in oral/anal sex with HIV+ males in ALL 2000 out of 2000 instances.

Even if you assume that only 1/2 of the males you bang in bathhouses are HIV+, the long-term odds of catching HIV remain in the 90 percentile. And I think Introject already established the amount of barebacking going on in these establishments.

And regularly attending bathhouses, sex clubs, and brothels (like you do/did) where barebacking is commonplace will dramatically increase the odds of encountering HIV+ people.

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Old 07-08-2012, 07:28 PM   #81
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I'm sorry, I hope it's nothing.
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  Originally Posted by INTroJect
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Lucky for me, I am in Mexico and didn't have to deal with all of that regulatory profiteering bullshit in the USA. Doctor's visit was less than $3 and the meds might have been 1/2 or 1/3rd of the cost.

Is this stuff legit? Or is it legit but just cheapo because it's generic?

  Originally Posted by Ambra
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What is a dark room?

Google "back room" (with extra keywords "nightclub + bar + sex"), my dear. Where the floors are sticky... OP makes it sound like a place where old people and hipsters develop retro photos.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Monogamous sex ≠ safe sex.

Right. Like I always say: If someone asks which among anal sex, vaginal sex, oral sex, or kinky S&M bloodbath have the highest risk of infection; there's no "correct" answer, but the most accurate answer would be "whichever one of those you found on craigslist". Because
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... Not even in the scientific world of medicine.

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Old 07-08-2012, 09:03 PM   #82
Uriel
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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No, but I can't recognize it.

Does not compute.
The question assumes you are already attracted to him and the deal-breaker is lipodystrophy.
Are you going to answer directly, or are you going to dodge the question?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I brought it up because unprotected vaginal sex has a much lower transmission rate than unprotected anal sex, yet HIV has infected over 15% of South Africans. Clearly, the extremely low chance of contracting HIV vaginally hasn't stopped the spread.

You are under the false assumption that the low rate of infection regarding the sex acts is supposed to stop the spread.

How did you factor in condom use in both geographic locations?
Where does male to female transmission factor in?
Where does male to male transmission factor in?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Even if you assume that only 1/2 of the males you bang in bathhouses are HIV+, the long-term odds of catching HIV remain in the 90 percentile. And I think Introject already established the amount of barebacking going on in these establishments. And regularly attending bathhouses, sex clubs, and brothels (like you do/did) where barebacking is commonplace will dramatically increase the odds of encountering HIV+ people.

The dramatic increase in probability of encountering an HIV+ male is irrelevant, because that will have no bearing on the probability of infection regarding individual instances.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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You familiar with the law of large numbers? Look it up. If you want to force a one-in-a-million bacterial mutation, you need only grow a few million bacteria. If you want to force a one-in-ten-thousand infection, you need only have ten thousand exposures.

Which is why I used a binomial distribution. If you use the binomial distribution for a fair coin toss, the odds of not getting a heads, or not getting a tails, gets closer to zero as tosses increase.

I ran the simulation as a coin toss, with a 99.94% chance of landing heads (non-infected), and a 0.06% chance of landing tails (infected). As the number of tosses increases, the odds of avoiding tails goes to zero. It's the law of large numbers at work.

Perhaps your math friend should explain why a binomial distribution doesn't work with this dataset.

He doesn't have to because I can do that myself.

Coin Toss
-1 coin
-2 possible outcomes
-A. outcome 1 = 50% heads
-B. outcome 2 = 50% tails

The Binomial Distribution necessitates constancy of P.
It is valid regarding a coin toss experiment, because the outcomes are at a constant 50% heads or 50% tails.

Regarding oral sex, P1 is the probability of infection (0.01%) and non-infection (99.99%).

In order for P1 to be constant
1. All of my sex partners must be HIV+ in all of my sexual encounters.
2. I must always perform only receptive oral sex to all the partners in 1.
-----2.1 no receptive anal
-----2.2 no insertive anal
-----2.3 no insertive oral

Questions:

Is 1. possible?
Is 2. (inclusive of 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3) possible?

If 1. and/or 2. is not possible, then P1 is not constant.
If P1 is not constant, the Binomial Distribution is not applicable.

Regarding anal sex, P2 is the probability of infection (0.065%) and non-infection (99.935%).

In order for P2 to be constant
3. All of my sex partners must be HIV+ in all of my sexual encounters.
4. I must always be top.
5. I must never use a condom in all sexual encounters.
6. I must always perform only insertive anal sex to all partners in 3.
-----6.1 no receptive oral
-----6.2 no insertive oral
-----6.3 no receptive anal

Questions:

Is 3. possible?
Is 4. possible?
Is 5. possible?
Is 6. (inclusive of 6.1, 6.2, and 6.3) possible?

If 3. and/or 4. and/or 5. and/or 6. (inclusive of 6.1, 6.2, and 6.3) is not possible, then P2 is not constant.
If P2 is not constant, then the Binomial Distribution is not applicable.

So in conclusion, your precious binomial distribution is nothing but a strawman based on monumentally flawed assumptions ultimately designed to fear-monger.

Extend my sympathies to your employer.

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Old 07-09-2012, 12:20 AM   #83
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  Originally Posted by peppersasen
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I'm sorry, I hope it's nothing.
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Thanks
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Is this stuff legit? Or is it legit but just cheapo because it's generic?

It's the real deal.


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To get them, I went to a medical clinic to sort out what meds to use and stuff, and then walked over to the main pharmacy in this part of town and bought them there. The clinic is just a (cutie) doc with an office offering consultations, all the prices for most services are up on the wall. No receptionist, no nurse, no insurance claims technicians, no records to keep, no bureaucratic BS at all, just pure trained expertise. He even let me waltz right out of there without paying him for the consult. I'll probably go back tomorrow to check back up with him and pay him his $4.50... should I take some pics of the joint?


ANOTHER MEDICAL SYSTEM RANT AS TO WHY THINGS SUCK

One bottle of this medicine is 4,400 pesos or $327 USD. The CDC link below, Table 3, says the cost in the USA is $640. Watch how quick "Transportation Security" confiscates these (LIFE SAVING!) pills, possibly also even nailing me with criminal charges(??), should I try to take them back to the USA. It shows who is working for who, and how well those political contributions end up padding corporate pockets.


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It galls me a tiny bit when people are so crazy for welfare, but then hysterical at the thought of fixing the policies that make our health system so expensive... so that we then need the welfare. Meanwhile, the nation's finances are a mess, much of the country is getting pushed into poverty because of this crap, and a select chosen few are making a whole lot of money from these shenanigans. Health care costs are jacked up many times more than any value someone might be getting from a welfare check, and the mechanisms that are conveniently holding prices up are often backed by throwing medically-desperate people in jail. So then we end up having to contend with both the highest prison population on the planet AND soaring health care costs. If we got rid of much of the BS in the US, there's little reason a Doctor's visit shouldn't cost a whopping $30, and pills and other treatments would also go way down too. Whoop de doo, call in the socialist brigade to make programs for that. If we were to get rid of the regulatory profiteering to bring prices down and THEN make social programs around that, this would be more acceptable, but the way we are going about it is downright retarded. Regulatory corportist monopolism masquerading as "socialism."


 
Google "back room" (with extra keywords "nightclub + bar + sex"), my dear. Where the floors are sticky... OP makes it sound like a place where old people and hipsters develop retro photos.

Oh yes, those floors are indeed a bit sticky in certain areas. It's kinda fun to just be in there all nasty as it is, hock luggies on the walls and whatnot. If I were to snap a pic, it might look like a shaded mysterious collage of random body parts molded together in a very unascertainable manner.

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Old 07-09-2012, 09:43 AM   #84
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Uriel, I think you're confusing the chances of something happening on one shot, and the chances of something not happening on many tries. Let's use a dice this time. The chances of rolling a "6" are 1 in 6. That's for a single instance. However, the chances of not rolling a 6 if you roll the dice 12 times can not be 1 in 6. Think about it, you've rolled it 12 times, so on average 2 of those times should have been sixes. Of course, it is possible that you rolled a all 6's, or that you rolled four 6's or that you rolled none at all.

There are two ways to figure out the probability that you rolled no sixes. First you could figure out all combinations of dice rolls (X), and then count up how many of those combinations have no 6's in them(Y), and then say your chance is Y in X. Of course, that's a lot of work, so there is a formula to make it easier.

Take the chance of not rolling a 6 in one roll is 5 in 6 or .83. So, in order not to get a 6 twelve times in a row, you have to be in that 83% every time, or .83 ^ 12 = .11 or 11%

You see distributions like this all the time. Take pregnancy, a woman is only fertile for a couple of days (if that) out of a month. The chances of her getting pregnant in one month is 12%, or a 88% of not getting pregnant. (It's even lower chance of getting pregnant on any single day - statistically kind of similar to having sex with someone with HIV, huh?). So, we take the chances of not getting pregnant (.88) and multiple that by the number of months (12) - chances of not getting pregnant in a single year of unprotected sex? 20%. So, with time we've gone from a 12% chance of something happening, to an 80% chance. Go one step further, and make it 2 years. Percentage of sexually active women who won't get pregnant drops to 4% (.2^2). This is why statisticians consider anything with a 1 in 500 or lower chance of happening as being extremely risky behavior. Because you don't actually have to do something 500 times for there to be a huge chance of landing on that 1 in 500 chance.
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Old 07-09-2012, 02:24 PM   #85
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  Originally Posted by Storm
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[...]

Coin Toss = P is constant = Binomial Distribution is applicable.

Dice = P is constant = Binomial Distribution is applicable.

Regarding the sex that is being formulated here, is P constant?
-if it is constant, what are the conditions of its constancy?

Regarding oral sex, P1 is the probability of infection (0.01%) and non-infection (99.99%).

In order for P1 to be constant
1. All of my sex partners must be HIV+ in all of my sexual encounters.
2. I must always perform only receptive oral sex to all the partners in 1.
-----2.1 no receptive anal
-----2.2 no insertive anal
-----2.3 no insertive oral

Questions:

Is 1. possible?
Is 2. (inclusive of 2.1, 2.2, and 2.3) possible?

If 1. and/or 2. is not possible, then P1 is not constant.
If P1 is not constant, the Binomial Distribution is not applicable.

Regarding anal sex, P2 is the probability of infection (0.065%) and non-infection (99.935%).

In order for P2 to be constant
3. All of my sex partners must be HIV+ in all of my sexual encounters.
4. I must always be top.
5. I must never use a condom in all sexual encounters.
6. I must always perform only insertive anal sex to all partners in 3.
-----6.1 no receptive oral
-----6.2 no insertive oral
-----6.3 no receptive anal

Questions:

Is 3. possible?
Is 4. possible?
Is 5. possible?
Is 6. (inclusive of 6.1, 6.2, and 6.3) possible?

If 3. and/or 4. and/or 5. and/or 6. (inclusive of 6.1, 6.2, and 6.3) is not possible, then P2 is not constant.
If P2 is not constant, then the Binomial Distribution is not applicable.
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Old 07-09-2012, 07:13 PM   #86
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Yes, Uriel, you're right in that a .065 chance is probably a bit higher than your real chance of contracting HIV+ if the status of your partner is unknown. However, again, that's the chance of contracting HIV+ in a single encounter.. The point is that even very very small chances become bigger chances when you're engaging in that behavior over and over again. Let's assume that HIV+ is extremely rare - so that you only have a .001% chance of catching it in any single sexual encounter. Let's say you go to a sex club once a month have are exposed to 20 different people's bodily fluids - within 10 years, you have a 28% chance of catching HIV+. You might counter that because each encounter will have slightly different odds, that this math doesn't work. That's why I used the pregnancy example before. The chance of a woman getting pregnant when she's not fertile or near it i 0%. Much higher chances when she's ovulating. However, we don't need to use those exact numbers in our calculations. It's like if I had two dice (red and blue) and I'm going to randomly pick one and roll it, what are the odds I will roll a red 6? You should say 1 in 12, even though there's a 1 in 6 chance it's a red 6 if I'm using the red die, and no chance I'll get a red 6 if I use the blue die.

So, yes, it is possible to come up with odds of catching HIV+ assuming we don't know your partner's status.

This says nothing about the various other STIs you can contract, which are much more common.
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Old 07-09-2012, 08:41 PM   #87
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Coin Toss = P is constant = Binomial Distribution is applicable.

Dice = P is constant = Binomial Distribution is applicable.

Regarding the sex that is being formulated here, is P constant?
-if it is constant, what are the conditions of its constancy?

Whether P is variable does not matter for the baseline calculation...if we take the least-dangerous unprotected activity, oral sex, as our baseline P, then any unprotected topping or bottoming you do only makes the long-term risk of contracting HIV higher. Which means k is the number of unprotected sexual acts, period. I think Storm is explaining it better than me.

Not only that, but you're ignoring the fact that viral load is different from person to person, day to day. There's no way any scientist can adjust these numbers for the fact that the viral load in a given HIV+ person depends upon how reliably they take their meds...and if they consume things that can interfere with the meds (alcohol/drug combos).


---

How do you think the per-act probabilities we're both citing were derived in the first place? Do you think some poor intern had to bring his clipboard to gay sex clubs, test everyone for HIV, then count the number of times people had unprotected oral and anal sex? Not even close.

The current standard is to find discordant monogamous couples (HIV+ and HIV-), have them record the number of times they perform different sex acts, and see if the HIV- person seroconverts. They then pool the data and standardize the numbers to rates per 1000 exposures.

I'm sure you can spot 100 problems with this sort of study...you're asking a large number of people to stay monogamous, remember all of their sex acts over a period of time, take any meds religiously, and be 100% honest about every sexual act they perform. Yet, this is the best methodology epidemiologists have without intentionally infecting people in experiments (which is unethical).

---

You should be thoroughly terrified to know that I'm one of the guys who ensures that fail-proof laboratory HIV tests are accurate. Via statistics!
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Old 07-09-2012, 10:21 PM   #88
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  Originally Posted by Storm
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The point is that even very very small chances become bigger chances when you're engaging in that behavior over and over again.


F.A.L.S.E.

The number of instances N will never change the rate of infection in any quantity or any given length of time.

  Originally Posted by Storm
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Let's assume that HIV+ is extremely rare - so that you only have a .001% chance of catching it in any single sexual encounter. Let's say you go to a sex club once a month have are exposed to 20 different people's bodily fluids - within 10 years, you have a 28% chance of catching HIV+. You might counter that because each encounter will have slightly different odds, that this math doesn't work.

That's why I used the pregnancy example before. The chance of a woman getting pregnant when she's not fertile or near it i 0%. Much higher chances when she's ovulating. However, we don't need to use those exact numbers in our calculations. It's like if I had two dice (red and blue) and I'm going to randomly pick one and roll it, what are the odds I will roll a red 6? You should say 1 in 12, even though there's a 1 in 6 chance it's a red 6 if I'm using the red die, and no chance I'll get a red 6 if I use the blue die.

So, yes, it is possible to come up with odds of catching HIV+ assuming we don't know your partner's status.

Correct, if P is constant, which is what you did in your example.

Now.

Your theoretical assumption (0.001% chance contraction) is blatantly wrong, because it is already in the data set that only involves HIV+ individuals. Yes. There is a way to find a P that is constant regarding the transmission of HIV. You cannot use the Binomial Distribution if the data you're using is the one on the data set, because it is not possible for P to be constant. You need additional data that is not present in the data set.


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In the data set, the column label says 10,000 exposures to an infected source.
That means 10,000 blowjobs to a single individual or individuals who are all HIV+.
This does not account blowjobs to individuals who are HIV-.
The actual sex pool in real life includes both HIV- and HIV+ individuals.
What do you think the inclusion of HIV- individuals do to the percentages in the data set?

1. What is the total number of HIV+ individuals in the general US population?

2. What percent of the HIV+ population in 1. constitute males?

3. What percent of the population in 2. constitute white males?

4. What percent of the population in 3. constitute homosexuals?

5. Addition of HIV- homosexual white males to the population in 4.

6. What percent of the population in 5. is HIV+ and HIV-?

7. Mystical HIV Goggles makes extraneous exclusions that includes individuals in population 5 (false positives).

8. What percent of the time do I top or bottom? Nice, round numbers for convenience.
-----20% Top
--------50% no condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.065% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)
--------50% with condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)

-----80% Bottom
--------100% with condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)


1. through 8. minus 7. is the key to finding a valid P that is constant, because it adds HIV- demographics to the sex pool.
Once you find the constant P, then and only then can you use the Binomial Distribution.
Keep in mind that the resulting P is based only on my personal sexual behavior, not the general population's.

  Originally Posted by Storm
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This says nothing about the various other STIs you can contract, which are much more common.

We are not talking about "various other STIs."
We are talking about HIV transmission.

Bringing up "various other STIs," using a litany of false analogies and shoddy math is rationalizing the irrational fear of contracting the disease. I say this in general throughout the thread, not just you.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Whether P is variable does not matter for the baseline calculation...if we take the least-dangerous unprotected activity, oral sex, as our baseline P, then any unprotected topping or bottoming you do only makes the long-term risk of contracting HIV higher.

That is true if and only if ALL of my sex partners are HIV+.
Is this plausible in a real life scenario?

And I absolutely love love love the way you skipped the key part of my argument I showed Storm above.

I'm going to ask the questions again:

Will you have sex with a male who shows signs of lipodystrophy I described so far?
The question assumes you are already attracted to him and the deal-breaker is lipodystrophy.

Would you ask your partner to wear a condom during oral sex?

Would you wear a condom yourself during oral sex?

Will you dodge the questions again or answer them directly?

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Old 07-10-2012, 12:19 AM   #89
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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The number of instances N will never change the rate of infection in any quantity or any given length of time.

It doesn't need to. If you flip 2000 coins, the coin never changes. But your odds of forever avoid tails (infection) plummets as you keep flipping.

Which is both Storm and my point. And something you're willfully ignoring because the prospect terrifies you.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Once you find the constant P, then and only then can you use the Binomial Distribution.

Why? Because your mysterious math friend told you? Even if we used a different formula, your probabilities become startlingly high when you repeat unsafe behaviors for decades.

Ask your friend about
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From wiki:

 
For a simplified example of the law, assume that a given event happens with a probability of 0.1% in one trial. Then the probability that this unlikely event does not happen in a single trial is 99.9% = 0.999.
In a sample of 1000 independent trials, the probability that the event does not happen in any of them is , or 36.8%. The probability that the event happens at least once in 1000 trials is then 1 − 0.368 = 0.632 or 63.2%. The probability that it happens at least once in 10,000 trials is .
This means that this "unlikely event" has a probability of 63.2% of happening if 1000 chances are given, or over 99.9% for 10,000 chances. In other words, a highly unlikely event, given enough tries, is even more unlikely to not occur.

---

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Will you have sex with a male who shows signs of lipodystrophy I described so far?
The question assumes you are already attracted to him and the deal-breaker is lipodystrophy.

No, nor would I have sex with a male whose genitals were covered in open sores. Or had a yeasty-smelling mouth.

Or a male who eagerly volunteered to bottom bareback.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Would you ask your partner to wear a condom during oral sex?

Would you wear a condom yourself during oral sex?

Yes and yes. I recommend the flavored condoms, and/or the use of kitchen aids (honey/chocolate/cream/etc).

Why? Because I know women who have *genital herpes* on their mouths. Made their love life a major pain.

---------- Post added 07-10-2012 at 12:24 AM ----------

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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That is true if and only if ALL of my sex partners are HIV+.
Is this plausible in a real life scenario?

The Binomial Distribution with a baseline still holds, just reducing the number of exposures to those partners who are HIV+. Given that you're in three high-risk groups...

1. Gay 20-something (20% of urban LGBT men are HIV+)
2. Former Sex Worker (run in prostitution-friendly circles)
3. Sex Club / Bathhouse fan (people who don't give a shit about HIV testing/protection)

...it wouldn't be a stretch to suggest that between 20-50% of your sex partners are HIV+.


How many blowjobs do you give a week? My initial calculation assumed 1 per week, conservative considering you bragged about doing three men in a day.

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Old 07-10-2012, 10:11 AM   #90
Uriel
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Which is both Storm and my point. And something you're willfully ignoring because the prospect terrifies you.

False. As usual, you are wrong.

Your point is rationalizing shoddy math that is inapplicable due to a P that is not constant.
Storm's point is suggesting that there is a formula that has a P that is constant.
See response to Storm again.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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1. Even if we used a different formula, your probabilities become startlingly high when you repeat unsafe behaviors for decades.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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2. ...it wouldn't be a stretch to suggest that between 20-50% of your sex partners are HIV+.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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3. The Binomial Distribution with a baseline still holds, just reducing the number of exposures to those partners who are HIV+.

False. Again, you are wrong.

See 1: Your offer to use a different formula is an indirect admission of the validity of my arguments and your shoddy math.

See 2: Stating that my potential sex partners are 50% HIV+ means 50% are HIV-. It is not stretching, it is slashing it by half.
And that is on the conservative high end of your yet again shameless overestimates.
This is the complete opposite of your statement in 3. where you say my potential sex partners are still reduced to HIV+ males.
This is also the complete opposite of your statement in 1. where you said the "probabilities become startlingly high."

See 3: If you do use a different formula the binomial distribution's baseline will not hold, because you added 50% HIV- males in the sex pool (2).
Meaning, you just added 0 in 10,000 to 1 in 10,000 probability. Thus 1 in 20,000 chance of contraction.
Using Storm's terms, you just added a blue die while only looking for results with a red die.

Someone hold me while I quake with fear.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Given that you're in three high-risk groups...

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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1. Gay 20-something (20% of urban LGBT men are HIV+)

What does this have to do with me as you do not know where I am geographically located?
Where does it state that 20% of urban LGBT men are HIV+?
You have citations, of course.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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2. Former Sex Worker (run in prostitution-friendly circles)

Burden of Proof please. Where did I state this?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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3. Sex Club / Bathhouse fan (people who don't give a shit about HIV testing/protection)

Burden of Proof please. Where did I state this?
How did you come to the conclusion that people who go to Sex Clubs or Bathhouse Fan(s) "don't give a shit about HIV testing/protection" ?

If you're referring to me, it does not compute given:
-usage of Mystical HIV Goggles for serosorting
-Bareback only when Top, and only when partner agrees. (lower risk activity dependent on partner)
-usage of condoms when Bottoming

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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How many blowjobs do you give a week?
My initial calculation assumed 1 per week, conservative considering you bragged about doing three men in a day.

Burden of Proof please. Where did I "brag about doing three men in a day" ?
What do you think your insistence on shoddy math is doing to your professional credibility?
I've already proven that the P in your initial formula is not constant, thus invalidating it.
You're still desperately trying to make your baseline P constant by making these flagrantly exaggerated assumptions.
Why you're using a toothpick to row your canoe against the Niagara is beyond me.

Storm has only made less than a handful of posts, yet she's already leaps and bounds ahead of you.
The best you can do at this point is to try and hurt my feelings.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Ask your friend about
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From wiki:
For a simplified example of the law, assume that a given event happens with a probability of 0.1% in one trial. Then the probability that this unlikely event does not happen in a single trial is 99.9% = 0.999.
In a sample of 1000 independent trials, the probability that the event does not happen in any of them is , or 36.8%. The probability that the event happens at least once in 1000 trials is then 1 − 0.368 = 0.632 or 63.2%. The probability that it happens at least once in 10,000 trials is .
This means that this "unlikely event" has a probability of 63.2% of happening if 1000 chances are given, or over 99.9% for 10,000 chances. In other words, a highly unlikely event, given enough tries, is even more unlikely to not occur.

Fascinating, notice how it's missing a single, colossal decimal place when compared to the percentages regarding HIV.
Probably means nothing as it's only statistics, right?

This law is merely a confirmation of the initial probability of 0.01% given a constant P within a set number of instances N.
In English, for those not privy to statistics:

There is a 99.99% chance of contraction out of 10,000 blowjobs.
You read that right; there is still a 0.01% chance of non-contraction even after having given 10,000 blowjobs to HIV+ people.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Will you have sex with a male who shows signs of lipodystrophy I described so far?
The question assumes you are already attracted to him and the deal-breaker is lipodystrophy.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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No, nor would I have sex with a male whose genitals were covered in open sores. Or had a yeasty-smelling mouth.
Or a male who eagerly volunteered to bottom bareback.

Fascinating.

You practice the same mystical serosorting you are arguing against me for doing.
Are STIs the only conclusion you can deduce from a yeasty-smelling mouth?
What is a male who eagerly volunteered to bottom bareback indicative of?

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Would you ask your partner to wear a condom during oral sex?
Would you wear a condom yourself during oral sex?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Yes and yes. I recommend the flavored condoms, and/or the use of kitchen aids (honey/chocolate/cream/etc).

Congratulations.

This statement will forever be a test of your personal integrity.
Do remember it every single time you're naked with your sex partner.

Since you're such an expert at statistics, what do you think is the probability of finding a sex partner who would agree to these terms?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I was the top of the class in "Statistics for Scientists and Engineers"

Were all your classmates retarded?

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Old 07-10-2012, 11:18 AM   #91
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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False. As usual, you are wrong.

Your point is rationalizing shoddy math that is inapplicable due to a P that is not constant.
Storm's point is suggesting that there is a formula that has a P that is constant.
See response to Storm again.

Any intro-level statistics TA would mock your inability to grasp this simple concept. Notice that Storm doesn't have any interest in this thread...yet gets it.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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See 2: Stating that my potential sex partners are 50% HIV+ means 50% are HIV-. It is not stretching, it is slashing it by half.
And that is on the conservative high end of your yet again shameless overestimates.
This is the complete opposite of your statement in 3. where you say my potential sex partners are still reduced to HIV+ males.
This is also the complete opposite of your statement in 1. where you said the "probabilities become startlingly high."

Again, you fail at math. Your risks are still in the double-digits.


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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See 3: If you do use a different formula the binomial distribution's baseline will not hold, because you added 50% HIV- males in the sex pool (2).
Meaning, you just added 0 in 10,000 to 1 in 10,000 probability. Thus 1 in 20,000 chance of contraction.
Using Storm's terms, you just added a blue die while only looking for results with a red die.

Or you just reduced your number of exposures by half.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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What does this have to do with me as you do not know where I am geographically located?
Where does it state that 20% of urban LGBT men are HIV+?
You have citations, of course.


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You'd have to look up the specifics of wherever you live, but young gay men are a high-risk group pretty much everywhere.


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Burden of Proof please. Where did I state this?


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I suppose with 4000 posts you're bound to forget a few.


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Burden of Proof please. Where did I state this?

You forget things this easily?.
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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How did you come to the conclusion that people who go to Sex Clubs or Bathhouse Fan(s) "don't give a shit about HIV testing/protection" ?

The Gift documentary, the OP of this thread, and talking with men who frequent such establishments.

And, well, you top people bareback and frequent bathhouses, so that's another example.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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If you're referring to me, it does not compute given:
-usage of Mystical HIV Goggles for serosorting
-Bareback only when Top, and only when partner agrees. (lower risk activity dependent on partner)
-usage of condoms when Bottoming


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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Burden of Proof please. Where did I "brag about doing three men in a day" ?

Perhaps you should be careful about what you share online?
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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What do you think your insistence on shoddy math is doing to your professional credibility?
I've already proven that the P in your initial formula is not constant, thus invalidating it.
You're still desperately trying to make your baseline P constant by making these flagrantly exaggerated assumptions.
Why you're using a toothpick to row your canoe against the Niagara is beyond me.

Storm has only made less than a handful of posts, yet she's already leaps and bounds ahead of you.
The best you can do at this point is to try and hurt my feelings.

*yawn*


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Fascinating, notice how it's missing a single, colossal decimal place when compared to the percentages regarding HIV.
Probably means nothing as it's only statistics, right?

This law is merely a confirmation of the initial probability of 0.01% given a constant P within a set number of instances N.
In English, for those not privy to statistics:
There is a 99.99% chance of contraction out of 10,000 blowjobs.


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At least you're now admitting that your risk of contracting HIV over 1000 blow jobs isn't 0.01%. That's progress!

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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You read that right; there is still a 0.01% chance of non-contraction even after having given 10,000 blowjobs to HIV+ people.

And you're gunning for it! Let it ride, Uriel's feeling lucky!

(10000 blowjobs is one per day for 30 years)



  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Fascinating.

You practice the same mystical serosorting you are arguing against me for doing.
Are STIs the only conclusion you can deduce from a yeasty-smelling mouth?

Oral thrush has a specific smell.

Would you bareback a man who passes your "mystic eyes" test?

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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What is a male who eagerly volunteered to bottom bareback indicative of?

Someone who doesn't give a shit about spreading STIs. Rather like Introject's mexibear in the OP (disease-spreading machine was the phrase he used, I believe).


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Congratulations.

This statement will forever be a test of your personal integrity.
Do remember it every single time you're naked with your sex partner.

Since you're such an expert at statistics, what do you think is the probability of finding a sex partner who would agree to these terms?

So far, it hasn't been a problem.

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Old 07-10-2012, 02:26 PM   #92
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Notice that Storm doesn't have any interest in this thread...yet gets it.

If Storm was not interested in the thread, then why would she post in it and actually suggest a viable formula?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Or you just reduced your number of exposures by half.

Yet you say:

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Even if we used a different formula, your probabilities become startlingly high.

Does not compute. Dilemma.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Interesting, since an
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(2010) in the journal Sexually Transmitted Diseases estimated that 11.8% of MSM were seropositive and the CDC estimated in 2006 that 79% of those who were poz knew it. That's a pretty big change in numbers over a short amount of time.


Media Headline: "sexually active gay and bisexual men in America"
CDC Study: "MSM... in the 21 American cities with the highest infection rates."

CDC: The findings in this report are subject to at least four limitations.

First, because the survey was administered by an interviewer, positive HIV status might have been underreported during the interview, given the sensitive nature of the topic, thereby inflating estimates of MSM unaware of their infections.

Second, 135 MSM who reported being HIV-positive but who had a negative or indeterminate HIV test result were excluded from analysis because of the possibility that they had false-negative NHBS test results; however, including these men as HIV-positive would have yielded a similar overall HIV prevalence (20% compared with 19%).

Third, comparisons of the NHBS-MSM datasets collected during 2004--2005 and 2008 should be made cautiously, because this analysis did not control for demographic differences in the samples, which might have influenced the percentages reported.

Finally, these findings are limited to men who frequented MSM-identified venues (most of which were bars [45%] and dance clubs [22%]) during the survey period in 21 MSAs with high AIDS prevalence; the results are not representative of all MSM. A lower HIV prevalence (11.8%) has been reported among MSM in the general U.S. population (8).

"comparisons of the NHBS-MSM datasets collected during 2004 -- 2005 and 2008 should be made cautiously,"

A more accurate headline would be: "20% of Bar and Dance Club frequenting Males who have sex with Males in the 21 American Cities with the Highest Infection Rates are HIV Positive."


Why are you intentionally spreading misinterpreted statistics?


  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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And, well, you top people bareback and frequent bathhouses, so that's another example.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Would you bareback a man who passes your "mystic eyes" test?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Your risks are still in the double-digits.

And what would those digits be?

What is the probability of my sex partner being HIV+?
What is the probability of my topping someone?
What is the probability of my partner agreeing that I top bareback?
What is the probability of contracting HIV by being a bareback top?



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pdf

"...3,500 tests administered. The alarmingly high HIV positive rate among these men, about 3.5%, triple that of the general New York City population."


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"The study’s results – which found that some men who reported recent high-risk behaviour in other settings actually had safer sex at the sauna"


  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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*yawn*

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I suppose with 4000 posts you're bound to forget a few.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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And you're gunning for it!

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Let it ride, Uriel's feeling lucky!

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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That's progress!

Why are you now starting to use smileys and exclamation points?
Why are your responses becoming shorter and juvenile?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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(10000 blowjobs is one per day for 30 years)

False.

One blowjob per day for 30 years + 7 days from each leap year is (365*30) + (7) = 10,957 (not 10,000)
You made a 9.6% error in your basic math calculation.
Do you really work with statistics?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Oral thrush has a specific smell.

And HIV Meds based Lipodystrophy has a specific look too.
Congrats on our serosorting techniques.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Burden of Proof please.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Perhaps you should be careful about what you share online?
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Incredibly insightful post. Thank you.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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You forget things this easily?
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Ah, there they are.

Questions:

The first two posts are from a thread over 19 months ago when my posts were most likely less than 500.
The third post is from a thread over 5 months ago.
How were you able to find those posts when post history can only go back to 200 posts?

I had earnest and sincere intentions when I shared that information with the forum.
Are you using them to rationalize the extremely unlikely premise that would make your baseline P constant in your original equation?

 

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Old 07-10-2012, 05:35 PM   #93
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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F.A.L.S.E.

The number of instances N will never change the rate of infection in any quantity or any given length of time.

Dude, this is getting kind of ridiculous. I mean, when you figure out what I'm trying to tell you, you might find yourself kind of embarrassed you used size 7 font to tell me I'm wrong. Of course the chance of an infection doesn't change in a single instance. Just like coin tossing, your odds of getting heads in a single flip is always 50%. But we're not talking about a single flip. We're talking about not getting heads when you flip the coin 100 times in a row. If you flip a coin 100 times in a row, usually about 50% of the time about half of them will be heads. So did you avoid heads? No, you didn't. You only need to flip heads once to lose.

The formula I gave you I didn't make up - I'm not that smart.
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is a site laying out how the formula is derived with charts and everything.

Here is a chart of flipping a coin - it shows all the chances of getting varying numbers of heads in 32 flips. They repeated those 32 flips 50,000 times.

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Notice that of his 50,000 tries, the time he got no heads in 32 flips is about 0. So, chance of never getting heads in 32 flips? About 0.

How do you think so women get pregnant when the chance of a getting pregnant in a single sexual encounter is about 1.5%? How do you think anyone every wins the lottery when the chances of winning is somewhere in the 1 in the dozens of millions? The answers are the same each time - because women are having lots of sex and millions of people are playing the lottery. Roll that dice enough and you'll eventually get a 20.

Or, to put it another way - while HIV+ may show up about only 6.5 times in 10,000 encounters, when you spin the dial 5,000 times, the odds are pretty high that one of those 6.5 transmissions is going to show up.

Here's another analogy that might help. Suppose you are running a lottery. There are 10,000 tickets, only 5 are winners. So the odds for any single individual is 5 in 10,000. You sell 5,000 tickets. Do you think the odds that you've sold the winning ticket is still 5 in 10,000?* Or is it something else? For transmission, it's better to think of yourself as the runner of the lottery rather than the lottery player, since you're worried about any encounter causing HIV+, not just a single one.

*For you not to have sold the winning ticket, you take odds of selling a losing ticket (9,995/10,000) and multiple it to the power of tickets actually sold (5,000) which equals .08. Which means the chances of selling all losers is 8%, or in other words, the chances of selling a winning ticket is 92%. Note again, that for the lotto players, the odds of them personally winning is still 5 in 10,000.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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If Storm was not interested in the thread, then why would she post in it and actually suggest a viable formula?

I love statistics, and I find gross misunderstanding of them frustrating, and it's kind of a fun time to see if I can get you to understand it. I regularly like to figure out the odds of various things happening in my own life for funsies. Also, I think it's unfair to yourself to so grossly misunderstand the risks you are engaging in.

 

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Old 07-10-2012, 06:43 PM   #94
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Why would adding HIV - men to the pool of sex partners affect in any way the chances of contraction from a single encounter with an HIV + person? The addition of HIV - to the pool decreases your overall chance of contraction, but with a particular HIV + person it remains the same every time. At least I think that's the disconnect here.

Aye, just be safe folks.
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Old 07-10-2012, 09:04 PM   #95
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Why are you now starting to use smileys and exclamation points?
Why are your responses becoming shorter and juvenile?

Because I'm becoming increasingly amused at the impressive amount of mental gymnastics you're pulling to justify your risky sexual behavior in this thread.

So you don't like using a normal binomial distribution? Fine. Use a Poisson distribution. Your results won't significantly change because of the fundamental principle at work here, best described by Storm.



  Originally Posted by Uriel
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False.

One blowjob per day for 30 years + 7 days from each leap year is (365*30) + (7) = 10,957 (not 10,000)
You made a 9.6% error in your basic math calculation.

You want five significant digits in a forum post?
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Imagine if you were this particular about who you blew.

Also, if you don't know,
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Approximate calculations (order-of-magnitude estimates) always result in answers with only one or two significant digits.


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Do you really work with statistics?

Do you really like to top bareback? You like that feeling of bloody shit on your dick?


  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Ah, there they are.

Questions:

The first two posts are from a thread over 19 months ago when my posts were most likely less than 500.
The third post is from a thread over 5 months ago.
How were you able to find those posts when post history can only go back to 200 posts?

Search function. Type in a name and a keyword, takes a few seconds.

I get this question a lot...maybe I should make a search tutorial for Jezebel?

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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I had earnest and sincere intentions when I shared that information with the forum.
Are you using them to rationalize the extremely unlikely premise that would make your baseline P constant in your original equation?

I'm using them to shake you of your invulnerability complex, so you'd at least avoid anal barebacking.

My purpose in this argument isn't to "win" or "show I'm smarter", but to decrease your risk of catching HIV. Since you're clearly set on swallowing sperm and breeding raw ass til the day you die, I find this whole exchange silly.
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Old 07-10-2012, 10:56 PM   #96
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  Originally Posted by Storm
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[...]

I am not disputing the increased likelihood of an event happening within a given number of events and a constant P.

I am disputing your statement as to what causes it.

A. An increase of probability for each single event

  Originally Posted by Storm
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The point is that even very very small chances become bigger chances[...]


B. The increased likelihood of an event happening

C. given a large set number of events

  Originally Posted by Storm
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[...]when you're engaging in that behavior over and over again.


D. And a P that is constant

E. (B+C+D)

You: E is true, because C causes A.
Me: C does not cause A, but E is true. You just need to find the correct P
You: Dude, E is true.
Me:
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Yes, I used a 7-size font on a quibble.

  Originally Posted by Storm
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[...]it's kind of a fun time to see if I can get you to understand it.

I already understand it, I am just telling everyone to find the correct P that is constant.

There is a way to find a P that is constant regarding the transmission of HIV. You cannot use the Binomial Distribution if the data you're using is the one on the data set, because it is not possible for P to be constant. You need additional data that is not present in the data set. The P I am talking about includes both sex acts I personally practice with the inclusion of HIV- people in the sex pool.


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In the data set, the column label says 10,000 exposures to an infected source.
That means 10,000 blowjobs to a single individual or individuals who are all HIV+.
This does not account blowjobs to individuals who are HIV-.
The actual sex pool in real life includes both HIV- and HIV+ individuals.
What do you think the inclusion of HIV- individuals do to the percentages in the data set?

1. What is the total number of HIV+ individuals in the general US population?

2. What percent of the HIV+ population in 1. constitute males?

3. What percent of the population in 2. constitute white males?

4. What percent of the population in 3. constitute homosexuals?

5. Addition of HIV- homosexual white males to the population in 4.

6. What percent of the population in 5. is HIV+ and HIV-?

7. Mystical HIV Goggles makes extraneous exclusions that includes individuals in population 5 (false positives).

8. What percent of the time do I top or bottom? Nice, round numbers for convenience.
-----20% Top
--------50% no condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.065% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)
--------50% with condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)

-----80% Bottom
--------100% with condoms
------------HIV- partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.0% chance infection oral)
------------HIV+ partner yields (0.0% chance infection anal) + (0.01% chance infection oral)


1. through 8. minus 7. is the key to finding a valid P that is constant, because it adds HIV- demographics to the sex pool.
Once you find the constant P, then and only then can you use the Binomial Distribution or The Law of Truly Large Numbers.
Keep in mind that the resulting P is based only on my personal sexual behavior, not the general population's.

*currently in the process of adjusting this. please wait for next post pertaining*


  Originally Posted by INTJRyan
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Why would adding HIV - men to the pool of sex partners affect in any way the chances of contraction from a single encounter with an HIV + person?

It does not.

  Originally Posted by INTJRyan
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The addition of HIV - to the pool decreases your overall chance of contraction, but with a particular HIV + person it remains the same every time.

Correct and Correct.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Search function. Type in a name and a keyword, takes a few seconds.

How did you know where to search?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Do you really like to top bareback?
You like that feeling of bloody shit on your dick?

What is the probability of my topping someone?
What is the probability of my partner agreeing that I top bareback?
What is the probability of contracting HIV by being a bareback top?
What is the probability of his anus bleeding during anal sex?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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My purpose in this argument isn't to [...] "show I'm smarter"

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I'm one of the guys who ensures that fail-proof laboratory HIV tests are accurate. Via statistics!

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I was the top of the class in "Statistics for Scientists and Engineers"


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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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So you don't like using a normal binomial distribution? Fine. Use a Poisson distribution.

Where did I state I did not "like using a normal binomial distribution"?
I merely stated why your precious binomial distribution was inapplicable.
Then you tried using the law of truly large numbers in order to justify still using the binomial distribution.
Completely ignoring that P was still not constant, and not knowing the correct P.
And now you switch to a Poisson.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Your results won't significantly change because of the fundamental principle at work here, best described by Storm.

And now you're piggy-backing on Storm's more sensible explanation.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Since you're clearly set on swallowing sperm and breeding raw ass til the day you die

Where did I state that I am "set on swallowing sperm" and ejaculating inside anuses until I die?

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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One blowjob per day for 30 years + 7 days from each leap year is (365*30) + (7) = 10,957 (not 10,000)
You made a 9.6% error in your basic math calculation.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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You want five significant digits in a forum post?
Also, if you don't know,
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.

No.

I want all significant digits regarding the accurate number of instances that will be used to determine the likelihood of an event occurring.
Your calculation did not even require decimal points, yet you still made that mistake.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I'm using them to shake you of your invulnerability complex

I have no "invulnerability complex."
I clearly stated I practice risk reduction regarding sex.
And that I also use a serosorting method that makes extraneous exclusions from the sex pool.
How does that translate into having an "invulnerability complex"?

At the risk of being verbally attacked I went ahead and shared a part of my life that was deeply private in order to give the readers of the forum a perspective they may not have been privy to before. I guess I was naive in hoping people were going to be emotionally mature enough to not use it in such a way as it's being used now, and it's not "to shake [me] out of [my] invulnerability complex."

 

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Old 07-10-2012, 11:46 PM   #97
eagleseven
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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How did you know where to search?

I searched the entire forum for any posts made by you that contained "prostitution" or "bathhouse". As I said, it took me all of 30 seconds. Computers are amazing!

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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What is the probability of my topping someone?
What is the probability of my partner agreeing that I top bareback?
What is the probability of contracting HIV by being a bareback top?
What is the probability of his anus bleeding during anal sex?

Your first two questions can't be answered, your third question was already answered, and your forth question depends upon how big you are and your use of lube.

Perhaps you're right. Since there's no way to determine the exact odds of any one person's sex acts, lets all have unending barebacking orgies. Nobody gets HIV anymore, anyways.


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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Where did I state I did not "like using a normal binomial distribution"?
I merely stated why your precious binomial distribution was inapplicable.
Then you tried using the law of truly large numbers in order to justify still using the binomial distribution.

I mentioned the law of truly large numbers in my first post, and used the quick binomial distribution to demonstrate its function.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Completely ignoring that P was still not constant, and not knowing the correct P. And now you switch to a Poisson.

Guess what, Uriel? The probability of infection from unprotected anal sex is not constant. It's variable, depending upon lube, anal toughness, penis size, viral loads, and type of penetration (gentle loving vs. S&M pounding).

By your logic, no transmission rates can be trusted, as they're all shoddily-made estimates that ignore all the confounding factors. Too many variable Ps!
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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And now you're piggy-backing on Storm's more sensible explanation.

If you had any clue what a probability distribution is, you'd realize that Storm was backing my argument from the start. And would know how silly you sound right now.



  Originally Posted by Uriel
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Where did I state that I am "set on swallowing sperm" and ejaculating inside anuses until I die?

I think it was a page ago in this thread, where you defended your love of sucking raw cock and topping people bareback. Do you really want me to quote this very thread?

Or have you now decided to always use condoms and dental dams?



  Originally Posted by Uriel
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I want all significant digits regarding the accurate number of instances that will be used to determine the likelihood of an event occurring.
Your calculation did not even require decimal points, yet you still made that mistake.

You get two significant digits because the original P only has two significant digits. I shouldn't have to explain this to you, assuming you stayed awake in highschool physics.

P.S. The 9.6% difference isn't in your favor.

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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I have no "invulnerability complex."
I clearly stated I practice risk reduction regarding sex.
And that I also use a serosorting method that makes extraneous exclusions from the sex pool.
How does that translate into having an "invulnerability complex"?

"Risk reduction" doesn't involve barebacking. Ever. Barebacking is "risk magnification".

  Originally Posted by Uriel
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At the risk of being verbally attacked I went ahead and shared a part of my life that was deeply private in order to give the readers of the forum a perspective they may not have been privy to before. I guess I was naive in hoping people were going to be emotionally mature enough to not use it in such a way as it's being used now, and it's not "to shake [me] out of [my] invulnerability complex."

God forbid somebody using your personal history to protect you from disease. Does being in multiple high-risk categories hurt your feelings, Uriel?

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Old 07-11-2012, 09:24 PM   #98
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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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I am not disputing the increased likelihood of an event happening within a given number of events and a constant P.

Oh, then you do get it.

 
I am disputing your statement as to what causes it.

I think was just a mistake on my use of language. I wasn't saying that engaging in something multiple times changes the chance of catching HIV+ per incident, I was saying what you just said - that there is an increased likelihood of an event happening the more you engage in an activity that has a risk of of causing that event.

Like I said before - you're right that .065 wouldn't be the P you should use for yourself since not everyone is HIV+. I decided to use .001 since that's the smallest number my calculator could do.

I was thinking about this in general, though - risk of infection to the individual and their behavior. When HIV+ was a bigger deal and more people had, everyone was really safe. HIV+ went down to a small percentage of the population. So, now, people calculate their odds and figure that the tiny risk isn't worth the precautions. Of course, within the population the disease is still spreading even with that tiny transmission rate. So, unless the drugs IntoroJect takes start becoming really common, cheap, and effective, the disease will probably easily get big again. Then people will start being extra safe again - until it's almost gone. Then back to throwing those safety measures out the window. Perhaps this is why it's so hard to eradicate diseases. People don't like taking extra safety steps when the benefit to them personally is small, even when the benefit to society is huge.

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Old 07-12-2012, 02:48 AM   #99
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The debate in this thread is cracking me up. BTW, in case anyone needs to take an nPEP in the future DO NOT MIX ALCOHOL WITH COMBIVIR!! It brought that chemo therapy feeling back with a vengeance that I thought I was going to drop dead all over again. This lasted for about a day, but then it goes back to being benign as a vitamin.

---------- Post added 07-12-2012 at 05:01 AM ----------

Uriel, why not just use condoms for all sex? This drops risk down to meaningless. Then, should there ever be an oopsie moment, there is a treatment for it. Personally, I hate using condoms, they are like insta-erection-weakeners, but it would change the dichotomy if I were to adopt any policy otherwise. For example, we can be sure that sooner or later, over the course of time, the probability is very high that there will be (or has been) an exposure event, but how will you know to take the nPEP? The exposure event will pass right on by as if nothing had happened.
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Old 07-12-2012, 01:29 PM   #100
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  Originally Posted by INTroJect
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Uriel, why not

*chloroform*

  Originally Posted by Storm
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I think was just a mistake on my use of language.

Correct.

Statistics mandates use of pin-point precise language, and what I find fascinating about it is that it forces fierce focus in both numbers and words. This fragile nature makes it extremely easy to misinterpret; see
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and its
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.

  Originally Posted by Storm
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Like I said before - you're right that .065 wouldn't be the P you should use for yourself since not everyone is HIV+.
I decided to use .001 since that's the smallest number my calculator could do.

**Let's use the misinterpreted numbers in
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link**

A. The homosexual male sex pool.
-----1. 80% HIV-
-----2. 20% HIV+

B. What is the probability of or preference for type of anal sex?
-----3. --% Insertive (Top)
-----4. --% Receptive (Bottom)
-----5. If both, then value is 100%

C. What is the probability of or preference for using a condom during B.?
-----6. --% Condom
-----7. --% no Condom

D. What is the probability of or preference for type of oral sex?
-----8. --% Insertive (Fellatee)*
-----9. --% Receptive (Fellator)*
-----10. If both then value is 100%

*New words.

E. What is the probability of or preference for using a condom in D.?
-----11. --% Condom
-----12. --% no Condom

Enter the Data Set.


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F. Probability of contraction per sex act.
-----13. 0.5% contraction through unprotected receptive anal 50/10,000
-----14. 0.065% contraction through unprotected insertive anal 6.5/10,000
-----15. 0.01% contraction through unprotected receptive oral 1/10,000
-----16. 0.005% contraction through unprotected insertive oral .5/10,000

Someone correct me if I'm wrong.
This is an attempt to find a more reasonable baseline P.
"no condom" values are used in C. and E. to find P.
Assuming a person engages in ALL sexual acts 13. through 16 with ALL partners ALL the time.

P = [A2][((B5)(C7)(F13 + F14)) + ((D10)(E12)(F15 + F16))]

P = [.2][((1)(1)(.5 + .65)) + ((1)(1)(.01 + .005))]

P = [.2][(.5 + .065) + (.01 + .005)]

P = [.2][(.565) + (.015)]

P = [.2][.58]

P = .116%

P is the probability of contracting HIV contingent upon:
-all your partners MUST be from any of the 21 US Cities with the highest infection rates
-all your partners MUST frequent bars and/or dance clubs and/or bathhouses
-all your partners MUST be from low socio-economic strata
-you must perform ALL sexual acts in the data set [(receptive and insertive)*(anal and oral)]
-you must never use a condom with ANY partner
-you must never use a condom with ALL sexual acts

Despite these contingencies, this P is far more realistic than the previous Ps being used.
This P includes both HIV- and HIV+ homosexual males in the sex pool.
This P includes ALL sexual acts male homos practice that have values in the data set.
To John Q. Public, this probability is low.
To a professional statistician, of which this thread has none, save perhaps post #3, this number is high.

P is reduced if:
-you perform only 1 or 2 or 3 out of the 4 total sexual acts (items 13 through 16) with each partner without a condom
-you use a condom when you engage in ANY one or combination of up to ALL 4 of the listed sexual acts (13 through 16)

The individual can practice their subjective risk reduction from this baseline P.

Mine:

P = [A2][(B3)(C7)(F14) + (B4)(C7)(F13) + (D10)(E12)(F15 + F16)]

P = [.2][(.2)(.5)(.065) + (.8)(0)(.5) + (1)(1)(.01 + .005)]

P = [.2][(.0065) + (0) + (.015)]

P = [.2][.0215]

P = .0043%

*If my magic lipodystrophy goggles were factored in, that would make A2 lower.

  Originally Posted by Storm
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I was thinking about this in general, though - risk of infection to the individual and their behavior. When HIV+ was a bigger deal and more people had, everyone was really safe. HIV+ went down to a small percentage of the population. So, now, people calculate their odds and figure that the tiny risk isn't worth the precautions. Of course, within the population the disease is still spreading even with that tiny transmission rate. So, unless the drugs IntoroJect takes start becoming really common, cheap, and effective, the disease will probably easily get big again. Then people will start being extra safe again - until it's almost gone. Then back to throwing those safety measures out the window. Perhaps this is why it's so hard to eradicate diseases. People don't like taking extra safety steps when the benefit to them personally is small, even when the benefit to society is huge.

You're talking about an Inconvenient Truth vs. A Convenient Lie, and which one is more effective in convincing people to practice safer sex. I doubt that people necessarily calculate their odds and find the more accurate risk percentages. I suspect they just eat whatever the media shoves down their throat. While I suspect the convenient lie has been effective in convincing John Q. Public for decades, when the convenient lie becomes so glaring that even stupid John Q. Public starts to suspect it then finds out it was an exaggeration, what then? Rhetoric fear mongering can only go so far.

1. Your personal preference regarding which sex act can make a big difference in reducing the risk of contraction.
2. Your use of a condom in ANY sex act can make a big difference in reducing the risk of contraction.
3. Your involving your partner's preferences for risk reduction can make a big difference in your risk of contraction.

All three of these statements are true to John Q. Public.
All three of these statements are true to John Q. Public 2.0 who has a calculator.
Notice there's no exaggeration or fear mongering involved in any of these statements.
These statements actually encourage safer sex.

Statements that encourage safer sex > Statements that discourage unsafe sex

So far as shaming HIV+ individuals is concerned, they wind up interacting with other "like" individuals, because it is a form of isolation / ostracization from the general HIV- populace. HIV+ people can still interact with HIV- people, just not sexually. Does this not reduce the probabilitiy of an HIV+ person infecting an HIV- person?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I searched the entire forum for any posts made by you that contained "prostitution" or "bathhouse". As I said, it took me all of 30 seconds.

Fascinating.
I wonder why you knew to use the word "prostitution" to find a post I made 19 months ago.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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God forbid somebody using your personal history to protect you from disease.

How will it protect me from disease?


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  Originally Posted by Uriel
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What is the probability of my topping someone?
What is the probability of my partner agreeing that I top bareback?
What is the probability of contracting HIV by being a bareback top?
What is the probability of his anus bleeding during anal sex?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Your first two questions can't be answered,
your third question was already answered,
your forth question depends upon how big you are and your use of lube.

First question I answered in this thread.
Second question I answered in this thread.
Fourth question can still be answered with a reasonable estimate. If not, it can be excluded from the viable variables.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Since
A) The probability of infection from unprotected anal sex is not constant.
A) It's variable, depending upon lube, anal toughness, penis size, viral loads, and type of penetration (gentle loving vs. S&M pounding).
A) there's no way to determine the exact odds of any one person's sex acts,

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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B) lets all have unending barebacking orgies.

A) Correct, but there are ways to get reasonable estimates based on the existing data set.

Since A) then B)
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,
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,
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  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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By your logic, no transmission rates can be trusted, as they're all shoddily-made estimates that ignore all the confounding factors.
Too many variable Ps!

You are wrong.

The Ps in the data set are misleading because the sex pool is only HIV+ people.
I am saying to use a P that does include HIV- people.
I am not saying that the Ps in the data set are shoddily made estimates.
I am saying that the P you used in your precious formula is wrong.
I am saying that your math is shoddy.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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If you had any clue what a probability distribution is, you'd realize that Storm was backing my argument from the start.

I took her aside, because I don't want her to make the same shoddy math you did and are still doing.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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I think it was a page ago in this thread, where you defended your love of sucking raw cock and topping people bareback.
Do you really want me to quote this very thread?
Or have you now decided to always use condoms and dental dams?

See bolded.
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,
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Where did I state my "love" of sucking raw cock and topping people bareback?

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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You get two significant digits because the original P only has two significant digits.
P.S. The 9.6% difference isn't in your favor.

It doesn't matter if it's in my favor or not.
What matters is that your math has been shown to be shamelessly shoddy several times.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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"Risk reduction" doesn't involve barebacking. Ever.
Barebacking is "risk magnification"

1. Barebacking as both Top and Bottom entails risk.
2. Barebacking as only Bottom entails reduced risk than 1.
3. Barebacking as only Top entails reduced risk than 2.
4. Barebacking as only Top contingent upon the agreement of the partner yields the possibility of reduced risk than 3.
---4.1 Preference for barebacking as Top, but with the partner's non-agreement yields no barebacking.
------4.1.1 No barebacking as Top entails reduced risk than 3.

"Risk reduction" doesn't involve barebacking. = FALSE. See 2. and 3.
Barebacking is "risk magnification" = FALSE. See 2. and 3.

  Originally Posted by eagleseven
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Perhaps you're right.

Perhaps.

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