qwerty
11-22-2007, 08:06 AM
Hi all I know that there is a topic on centralist (those people with borderline type percentages) but this struck me as being interesting enough for a new topic.
Okay then lets begin:
The Myers Briggs test measures preference of type, it does not measure strength of type, what this means is that a person maybe 85% iNtuitive in preference however they may not have developed it (as a result they would have a low sensing strength too).
So using the above we create an example:
A person has a preference for feeling however they've had that trait dominated by thinking personalities (maybe they're antisocial too). As a result they lack the strength of personality to do either at any decent level (they show their feeling the same way a thinker would, but they are unable to think the same way a thinker does) as someone mentioned in the other thread this causes them to be a shell (especially if they have a higher natural preference for the weak type).
Question 1: for those who understand the way this stuff works is that an accurate description? Of course I'm assuming that personalities change over time but if the person has some mental block (lets say Cyclothymic disorder) that fluctuates and stops them from tackling their problems then their personality may stay the same.
Does this sound plausible? And if anyone has stats on the likely hood that would be great.
Moving on:
If such a person did exist and say the 'blocked' personality trait was their auxiliary function how do you think it would manifest on the persons other traits?
Say the person was an INTJ and they suffered on the t-f axiom. I'd be drawn to the conclusion that the intuition preference and strength would be extremely high, the thinking preference and strength would be extremely low.
So the effect on the Judging and Introversion preferences may appear abnormal.
E.g. a Highly Introverted person may show a lower preference and the judging preference would increase to emphasis the intuitive side of the person.
In otherwords you would get something like
10% Introvertion
90% Intuition
4% Thinking
80% Judging
Question 2:
Why would this be a wrong assumption. I'm asking because it works in my head but I'm looking for reasons it wouldn't work.
And for the person who's going to ask why would I ask this? Because I'm interested! :)
Thanks for any answers guys and gals.
Okay then lets begin:
The Myers Briggs test measures preference of type, it does not measure strength of type, what this means is that a person maybe 85% iNtuitive in preference however they may not have developed it (as a result they would have a low sensing strength too).
So using the above we create an example:
A person has a preference for feeling however they've had that trait dominated by thinking personalities (maybe they're antisocial too). As a result they lack the strength of personality to do either at any decent level (they show their feeling the same way a thinker would, but they are unable to think the same way a thinker does) as someone mentioned in the other thread this causes them to be a shell (especially if they have a higher natural preference for the weak type).
Question 1: for those who understand the way this stuff works is that an accurate description? Of course I'm assuming that personalities change over time but if the person has some mental block (lets say Cyclothymic disorder) that fluctuates and stops them from tackling their problems then their personality may stay the same.
Does this sound plausible? And if anyone has stats on the likely hood that would be great.
Moving on:
If such a person did exist and say the 'blocked' personality trait was their auxiliary function how do you think it would manifest on the persons other traits?
Say the person was an INTJ and they suffered on the t-f axiom. I'd be drawn to the conclusion that the intuition preference and strength would be extremely high, the thinking preference and strength would be extremely low.
So the effect on the Judging and Introversion preferences may appear abnormal.
E.g. a Highly Introverted person may show a lower preference and the judging preference would increase to emphasis the intuitive side of the person.
In otherwords you would get something like
10% Introvertion
90% Intuition
4% Thinking
80% Judging
Question 2:
Why would this be a wrong assumption. I'm asking because it works in my head but I'm looking for reasons it wouldn't work.
And for the person who's going to ask why would I ask this? Because I'm interested! :)
Thanks for any answers guys and gals.